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October 02, 2007

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It suggests that gender equality and GDP go hand in hand, certainly. "Economic development" is a bit nebulous.

So if no one had any children, we would all be richer?

The third reason, which I hope is so obvious it barely needs to be said, is that if you restrict roughly 50% of the population you lose roughly 50% of the talent and abilities of the population.

"So if no one had any children, we would all be richer?"

So why were houses a lot cheaper when fewer women worked and most had more children ?

"if you restrict roughly 50% of the population you lose roughly 50% of the talent and abilities of the population."

Only if "talent and ability" are evenly distributed across the population, which they obviously aren't.
Supposing the economy needs more qualified nurses, and supposing all the nurses are women, does that mean the health service is missing out on talent and ability ? Does it matter if the patients get the care they need ?

And if business still makes a matter ? What happens to the people displaced by women joining the workforce ?Has profitability increased with equality ?

Gender-based wage discrimination explains all the difference in per-capita output between Saudi and the US?

To be blunt, I don't believe a word of it.

I expect the rest of the "study" to be equally rigorous.

It also shows why GDP is a poor measure. If a woman stays home and cook/clean/look after children instead of going to work as a cook and employing a cleaner and a child carer (who both do the same) then while there is an increase in economic output due to specilisation, it is not nearly as much of an increase as GDP measures would suggest.

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