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November 13, 2009


Giles Wilkes

And can I add: what about wealth? No doubt we have had some falls from 08 onwards, but since then, owners of assets have been bailed out to a wonderful degree by QE, while those at the bottom are in all probability awaiting several rises in VAT, and Reform telling them that they deserve no benefits . ..


My recollection (unchecked) is that a narrowing of differentials in wages occurred in past recessions. Commenators put it down to falls in hours, bonuses etc.; but I do not recall this explanation being convincingly demonstrated.

Barry Simmons Wicket

And we're also untold billions more in debt. Well done Labour.


From the given measures, definitely inequality has fallen.
There are, though, some big caveats here it is


Do these stats include the fall in wages of the new unemployed?

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Thanks for your analysis.


Love your blog, but rarely comment.
Couple of things I'd be interested in your view on following the analysis you've just done:
1) I'm wondering if absolute measures of income are not very helpful and it's available disposable income that counts (e.g. £50K might be top 10% of income overall, but in London doesn't even get a mortgage on a two-bed flat which is hardly the life of riley but the same mortgage is worth more elsewhere);
2) I notice your data's focused on full-time figures. What you think about part-time workers wage inequality? Same survey shows a disparity of over 35% comparing part-time workers with full-time workers? Does this indicate that non-full-time working patterns are still confined primarily to lower wage areas that women tend to work in and would this be indicative of inequality?

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